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 @8MMHXYBanswered…4yrs4Y

 @8TVYZQL from Georgia  answered…4yrs4Y

No, only if there is evidence that the dealer did not properly give a background check on the buyer.

 @8C7KPKS from Tennessee  answered…5yrs5Y

 @8FCYBSYanswered…5yrs5Y

No they shouldn’t because the gun did not do anything, the person behind it did.

 @8GSTQWNanswered…4yrs4Y

No, they did not tell they buyer to shoot them or harm them with the gun. So it isn't the manufacturers fault.

 @8J4WLPL from Wisconsin  answered…4yrs4Y

No, The Misuse of a firearm is not the manufacturer's fault, it is the person in possession of that firearm's fault.

  @8JBN6KV from Texas  answered…4yrs4Y

No. That is ridiculous! Unless the gun malfunctioned resulting in injury to user which would be a products liability tort - HELL NO! Guns do not kill people. People make the choice to kill people. NEVER direct the hate or fault on the manufacturer unless they made a faulty product.

 @8Q4ZF56 from Missouri  answered…4yrs4Y

 @8RMPMDK from North Carolina  answered…4yrs4Y

 @8YX4JT9 from Texas  answered…3yrs3Y