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 @8V37MX4 from Ohio  answered…4yrs4Y

No because the manufacturers were not the ones who sold it to the person or told the person to do that to you

 @8C7KPKS from Tennessee  answered…5yrs5Y

 @8FCYBSYanswered…5yrs5Y

No they shouldn’t because the gun did not do anything, the person behind it did.

 @8PRKY7Qanswered…4yrs4Y

No, the manufacturer did not intend for their gun to be used as a weapon against the innocent.

 @8RSRZ2H from Colorado  answered…4yrs4Y

 @8SDSJ92 from Texas  answered…4yrs4Y

Manufacturers should not be held liable, but if dealers do not implement thorough background checks and training, and extensive psychological tests, then the dealer can and should be held liable.

 @8V2C9ZY from Illinois  answered…4yrs4Y

It depends on your way of thinking For instance If you were a serial killer and you shot someone then you should be sued not the arms dealer because you shot the person not the arms dealer and the arms dealer could help people that are in need of defense or protection then the people should be able to get the weapon but before that the dealer should check if you had a criminal record then they should call the police and let them handle the situation.

 @8V2C9ZY from Illinois  answered…4yrs4Y

It depends on your way of thinking For instance If you were a serial killer and you shot someone then you should be sued not the arms dealer because you shot the person not the arms dealer and the arms dealer could help people by not giving out weapons but before that the dealer should check if there are ways to help out others without giving out arms

 @8V7X74Hanswered…4yrs4Y

No unless they didn't do a strict background check or file the proper paper work to buy a gun

 @8VVZH57 from Hawaii  answered…4yrs4Y

No it wouldn't be fair because theres lots of people who use fire arms for their safety.

 @8X92WL9 from Alabama  answered…3yrs3Y